Lời giải:
Nếu $x+y+z=0$ thì:

$\frac{x+y-z}{z}=\frac{-z-z}{z}=-2$

$\frac{y+z-x}{x}=\frac{-x-x}{x}=-2$

$\frac{z+x-y}{y}=\frac{-y-y}{y}=-2$ 

(thỏa mãn đkđb)

Khi đó:

$P=(1+\frac{x}{y})(1+\frac{y}{z})(1+\frac{z}{x})=\frac{(x+y)(y+z)(z+x)}{xyz}$

$=\frac{(-z)(-x)(-y)}{xyz}=\frac{-xyz}{xyz}=-1$

Nếu $x+y+z\neq 0$

Áp dụng TCDTSBN:

$\frac{x+y-z}{z}=\frac{y+z-x}{x}=\frac{z+x-y}{y}=\frac{x+y-z+y+z-x+z+x-y}{z+x+y}=\frac{x+y+z}{x+y+z}=1$

$\Rightarrow x+y=2z; y+z=2x, z+x=2y$. Khi đó:

$P=\frac{(x+y)(y+z)(z+x)}{xyz}=\frac{2z.2x.2y}{xyz}=8$

Áp dụng tính chất dãy tỉ số bằng nhau, ta có:

(y + z - x)/x = (z + x - y)/y = (x + y - z)/z = 1

--> y + z - x = x; z + x - y = y; x + y - z = z

--> y + z = 2x; z + x = 2y; x + y = 2z

Ta có: 

B = (x + y)/y.(y + z)/z.(z + x)/x

= 2z/y.2x/z.2y/x = 8

từ đề bài ta có bất đẳng thức cần chứng minh tương đương: 

\(3+\dfrac{z}{x+y}+\dfrac{x}{y+z}+\dfrac{y}{x+z}\le\dfrac{1}{4}\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)+\dfrac{9}{4}\)

<=>\(\dfrac{3}{4}+\dfrac{z}{x+y}+\dfrac{x}{y+z}+\dfrac{y}{x+z}\le\dfrac{1}{4}\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)\)

ta có \(\dfrac{3}{4}+\dfrac{z}{x+y}+\dfrac{x}{y+z}+\dfrac{y}{x+z}\le\dfrac{3}{4}+\dfrac{z+y}{4x}+\dfrac{x+z}{4y}+\dfrac{x+y}{4z}=\dfrac{3}{4}+\dfrac{1}{4}\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)-\dfrac{3}{4}=\dfrac{1}{4}\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)\left(đpcm\right)\)Dấu "=" xảy ra khi x=y=z=\(\dfrac{1}{3}\)

Ta có \(\dfrac{1}{x^2}+\dfrac{1}{y^2}+\dfrac{1}{z^2}+\dfrac{2}{xyz}=1\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{\left(yz\right)^2+\left(xz\right)^2+\left(xy\right)^2+2xyz}{\left(xyz\right)^2}=1\)

<=> (xy)² + (yz)² + (zx)² + 2xyz = (xyz)² 

<=> (xy)² + (yz)² + (xz)² + 2xyz(x + y + z) = (xyz)² 

<=> (xy + yz + zx)² = (xyz)² 

<=> \(\left[{}\begin{matrix}xy+yz+zx=xyz\\xy+yz+zx=-xyz\end{matrix}\right.\)

+) Khi xy + yz + zx = -xyz 

=> \(\dfrac{xy+yz+zx}{xyz}=\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}=-1< 0\left(\text{loại}\right)\)

=> xy + yz + zx = xyz 

<=> \(xyz\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)=xyz\Leftrightarrow xyz\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}-1\right)=0\)

<=> \(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}=1\)

<=> \(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}=\dfrac{1}{x+y+z}\)

<=> \(\dfrac{x+y}{xy}=\dfrac{-\left(x+y\right)}{\left(x+y+z\right)z}\)

<=> \(\left(x+y\right)\left(\dfrac{1}{xz+yz+z^2}+\dfrac{1}{xy}\right)=0\)

<=> \(\dfrac{\left(x+y\right)\left(y+z\right)\left(z+x\right)}{\left(zx+yz+z^2\right)xy}=0\)

<=> \(\left[{}\begin{matrix}x=-y\\y=-z\\z=-x\end{matrix}\right.\)

Khi x = -y => y = 1 => P = 1

Tương tự y = -z ; z = -x được P = 1

Vậy P = 1 

ngu như con lợn

Ta có bất đẳng thức AM-GM dạng phân thức sau: 

\(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}\ge\dfrac{4}{a+b}\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{a+b}\le\dfrac{1}{4}(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b})\)

Dấu ''='' xảy ra khi và chỉ khi a=b

Quay lại bài toán: Áp dụng bđt trên, ta có:

\(\dfrac{1}{2x+y+z}=\dfrac{1}{(x+y)+(x+z)}\le\dfrac{1}{4}(\dfrac{1}{x+y}+\dfrac{1}{x+z})\\ \le\dfrac{1}{16}(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{z})=\dfrac{1}{16}(\dfrac{2}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z})\)

Tương tự:

 \(\dfrac{1}{x+2y+z}\le\dfrac{1}{16}(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{2}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z})\); \(\dfrac{1}{x+y+2z}\le\dfrac{1}{16}(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{2}{z})\)

Cộng 3 phân thức lại, ta có:

\(\dfrac{1}{2x+y+z}+\dfrac{1}{x+2y+z}+\dfrac{1}{x+y+2z}\le\dfrac{1}{4}(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z})=\dfrac{1}{4}.4=1\)

Dấu ''='' xảy ra khi và chỉ khi: \(x=y=z=\dfrac{3}{4}\)